DarkAngelBGE Posted May 11, 2004 Report Share Posted May 11, 2004 Well ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaas Posted May 11, 2004 Report Share Posted May 11, 2004 Lol this one's easy.It's the year when William the Conqueror, the duke of Normandy, invaded England and deafted the English army (of Harold II) at Hastings aka 'The Battle of Hastings'.The date is a virtual turning point in British history because it was the first step at the British Empire (centralisation under the Normandians) and the beginning of the French influence. The similarity between many English and French words date from that period, since the Normandians (or Normans) spoke French (of course an old tongue).It also drew more clear lines between the plebs (common people) and aristocracy. The aristocracy were mostly Normans, who also insisted on speaking French (although the Germanic English language stayed superior), the plebs were people who already lived there (Germanic and Celtic people).A very known piece of art concerning the Battle of Hastings is the Bayeux Tapestry, whichs shows Norman cavalry fighting the enemy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DarkAngelBGE Posted May 11, 2004 Author Report Share Posted May 11, 2004 wohoo, Klaas pwns us all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Argalius Posted May 11, 2004 Report Share Posted May 11, 2004 'The Battle of Hastings'Oh I know that one of AoK Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mystic-Al-Bob Posted May 11, 2004 Report Share Posted May 11, 2004 I still knew that from school. but only when?, who? and where? no details Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rohirwine Posted May 12, 2004 Report Share Posted May 12, 2004 Basically, if you want some details, the Anglo-Saxons came from the north of England were they had just defeated a Viking invasion.Harold, the AS king, didn't stop to wait for all, because he feared that the normans would conquer too much land before he could stop them. And he knew that by fighting near their landing site, he would have put them with backs against the wall.Anyway, even if the AS were weary from the two day march, they were able to occupy a ridge and there they put all men (all on foot) in a "shield wall" formation wich withstanded all cavalry attacks made by the Normans. When a norman wing seemed to crumble and flee the battlefield (it is not clear wether because they had enough or because they put up a stratagem) AS infantry were lured out their standing position, broke the lines to pursue the fleeing enemy, and were put to piecemeal by the following norman cavalry charge. The battle did not end before late evening because a resolute group of AS Thengs (or Thanes) resisted till late, and well after Harold was killed.After this battle the only thing Normans had to do was conquering the whole country, without little more than some scarmuches...Enough details? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DarkAngelBGE Posted May 12, 2004 Author Report Share Posted May 12, 2004 Bravo Klaas and Matteo. Yea I basically knew what 1066 is famous for. Just didn't know the exact circumstances, that's why I asked. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rohirwine Posted May 12, 2004 Report Share Posted May 12, 2004 At your service and that of your family *bows* Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EKen132 Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 Isn't it one of the dates that the medievel age is said to "begin" officially? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaas Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 Nope, one of those dates is 476, the so-called fall of Rome. By 1066 you would be close to the end of the Middle Ages according to some groups of scholars who put the end at the rise of the first big (trade) cities (1200s). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EKen132 Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 Well 476 was the beginning of the dark ages... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaas Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 Yeah but the dark ages belong to the Middle ages. In high school they usually divide the middle ages in the dark ages and high middle ages. But in general terms history is divided like this:prehistory (before writing was invented)protohistory (writing was intvented but about cultures that didn't use it yet though other cultures wrote about them, Celts for example)classical ages (Greeks, Romans, ...)middle ages (476 fall of Rome - 1453 fall of constantinople)new ages (1453 - 1789 French revolution)newest ages (maybe referred as modern too in english) (1789 - now).Anyway, just some dates that in reality mean nothing. As I said, some scholars make the middle ages stop around 1250 - 1350. Or the renaissance happened much earlier in Italy (13th - 14th century) compared to other parts of Europe (late 15th - 16th century). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Curufinwe Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 (Basically, if you want some details, the Anglo-Saxons came from the north of England were they had just defeated a Viking invasion.Well, do you mean the Anglo-Saxons actually came from North England or do you mean they had just ridden back from North England ...?Anyway, Normands were Vikings after all Just Vikings who had settled there and given a piece of land to stop bothering the other Frankish provinces As for the Normands invading the whole country ... I disagree as well ... It is pretty clear on the Bayeux tapestry that the population was of course not in favour of the Normands, but did not do much to expell them from Brittania. Let's say they were like some French people during WW2 ... they criticized the Germans, but in fact traded with them ... hence the high number of Normand/Viking relics in the area ... a living relic of which is the Manx Loaghtan Sheep on the Isle of Man ... :znaiga:Anyway, another precision, 1066 is also remembered as the only time Anglo-Saxons were invaded by a foreign power ... Only the Romans and the Anglo-Saxons had managed to take Britain over ... Neither Hitler nor Napoleon could ... As for Klaas's division of Ages, I thought it was a bit different. Maybe it is due to our education system ...okay until the classical ages ...but ... 476 - 1492 is here called the Middle-Ages (not until 1453), 1492 being Colombus's discovery1492 - mid 18th is known as the Renaissance periodmid 18th - 1900 is the industrial revolution and post-revolution period.1900 onwards is modern age ...Anyway, just a difference in point of view Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaas Posted July 30, 2004 Report Share Posted July 30, 2004 Yeah, but that's the high school system 1492 wasn't so important as the fall of constantinople since the real discovery only started later on. If that would have been used as a mark we should also consider the discovery of trade routes to India and the trade with Indonesia and such. Those were, at that time, more important than south or north America.But 1453 defines a political and cultural clash inside Europe, the end of what was left of the Roman empire, the rise of a very powerful Muslim empire. Both economically, politically, religiously and socially that event had a huge impact.Dating the renaissance between 1492 and mid 18th century doesn't sound reasonable to me. The renaissance isn't about the discovery of America nor about any period in the 18th century; that's rather enlightment which isn't the same thing as the renaissance.There were several renaissances, and in fact the one that is taught in school wasn't really one. A very important renaissance was during Charlemagne's rule. An even more important one is the rise of the big trade cities, especially in Italy, Germany and Flanders. Particularly in those regions the renaissance started: gothic renaissance in Germany and Flanders, and renaissance as in the popular renaissance taught at school in Italy.The Italian renaissance eventually made its way to other parts of Europe. But the thing is, did that influence the whole society or merely architecture and art? Frankly I don't think it's right to say that during the renaissance everything suddenly changed. Due to the liberty in the trade cities there was already a big change of mentality and society as a whole.As for using mid 18th century as the end I suppose this concerns the industrial revolution. That's right for England, but it doesn't apply to the rest of Europe, again we were roughly 80 years behind. I do think that's a good idea to separate time frames as it influenced society a lot. I guess the French revolution is used in the university system because it was the fall of the Ancien Régime and the rise of democracy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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