I think there is a misconception here. Country (or countryside) doesn't equate to farmlands.
The semantic flexibility of the Greek ἀγρός (agros) hinges on the shift from a functional unit to a geographical zone. The meaning diverges based on the narrative focus: it either refers to "farmlands" as a collection of tangible assets and wealth (emphasizing what a person owns), or it refers to the "countryside" as a rural region (emphasizing where a person is, which is often the case in the New Testament).
This distinction is most visible when the plural is used to describe the "open country" surrounding a settlement; in these instances, the word ceases to be about farming specifically and instead serves as a spatial contrast to the urban center. Essentially, the word transitions from a private asset (singular field/plural estates) to a public landscape (the rural surroundings).
See: https://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=a)gro/s
In the Gothic Bible, there are several references to fields, contexts that unambiguously refer to fields in an agricultural sense, whether in the plural or singular.
For example, in Matthew 6:28:
"And why do you worry about clothes? See how the flowers of the field grow. They do not labor or spin."
In this passage, the Gothic Bible uses haiþjos, the singular genitive of haiþi. It is the ancestor of the English heath and heathen.
https://www.wulfila.be/gothic/browse/text/01/06/28.html#S1097
Therefore, I insist, weihs designates either a village or the country in its geographical sense. Not farmlands. If weihs was translating the word 'farm', it would have been used at least once in that sense. There are about ten instances where the Bible unambiguously mentions one or more fields.
Similarly, that's why current translations of the Bible distinguish between country and fields.