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Sukkit

WFG Retired
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Posts posted by Sukkit

  1. I don't know much of my ancestors. My surname (Ochoa) comes from the Basque otsoa, meaning "the wolf". My grandfather on my father's side was from Navarre, and my grandmother from the Basque Country.

    My mother's family is from Andalusia, but I know less of them.

  2. The entire story seems like a tale being told by a Grandpa to a bunch of children where the truth seems to get stretched and things become almost silly.

    Perhaps that's the point, it was still widely known in the TA and had acquired lots of legendary elements. But that seems unlikely, since Aragorn probably had to learn the story in Rivendel (and of course Bilbo found the whole tale in Rivendel - it's implied that Bilbo was the original compiler of The Silmarillion), and there ruled Elrond, son of Elwing daughter of Dior son of Lúthien. I don't think he'd have forgotten the original story and let all that legend "intoxicate" the tale, considering he lived in the FA.

    But take into account that Lúthien was no normal elf-woman either, and a higher fate probably led her and Beren in their quest (i.e. the Valar :drunk:)

  3. What Matteo has said. And also...

    * Girls are allowed to attend school.

    Girls were allowed to attend school before, too. Actually, Iraq was one of the most liberal Arab countries regarding the position of women within their society.

    Just to point out that this article should be taken with a grain of salt, even if some things there are true and others I simply don't know.

  4. ok so idk what this carolingian reform stuff is, but ill stick with keeveeleh, because that's what i thought it was.

    Basically, around 800 the Carolingians decided to reform the way their language (which they perceived was still Latin) was to be pronounced for religious rites. They assigned one sound per letter, in many ways similar to the Anglo-Saxon way of pronouncing Latin, and therefore their language was divided into two branches: Medieval Latin (which hadn't existed before, as such), and Old French (which was written as always, i.e. it looked like Latin, but was read in vernacular pronounciation). Eventually a new caligraphy was invented for Old French, because all cultivated people had learnt to read Latin with the new reformed pronounciation. And as the Carolingian rites were imposed in all Europe, so did Medieval Latin. The idea that the elites spoke a virtually unchanged Latin and the people Romance since the late times of the Empire is widely accepted, but quite flawed as well.

    To illustrate this:

    The Latin word SAECULUM, when in Spanish medieval texts, was naturally read as [sjeglo] (from where modern Spanish siglo, "century"), but when the reform was introduced (by 1080) SAECULUM was pronounced just like that, [sekulum], and eventually a new caligraphy had to be devised to express the native [sjeglo]: sieglo. Just like when you read KNIGHT you don't pronounce [knIxt] but [nait].

    Anyway...

    panem > ficatum

  5. My argument exactly. Nothing to add.
    Thus, Israelis illegally live there.
    BUT, Israel has existed for almost 60 years. Many of its citizens were born in Israel, and they therefore have gained a right over that land.

    Mine is not your argument, mate... I don't claim Israel is an illegal entity that should disappear.

  6. Well, actually, keeveeleh is the so called "classic pronuniation" as probably latins pronunciated it, later, in medieval times, it changed a lot (another example: Keekehro for Cicero)

    We're taught in school to pronounce letter by letter, they told us that's the classic pronounciation, when in reality final -m was mute, -tio was -dzio (in latter times), etc. :D

    populares > circenses

  7. a.) They both target civilians

    b.) They both have something against western intervention in middle eastern affairs.

    c.) They both use violence, including suicide to further their goal.

    d.) Their goal is ultimately to get western influence out of their...

    e.) [they both have] Islamic Culture

    Only a) is bad*, and even then it could be argued whether or not targeting civilians is justified to achieve a greater goal. I think it's not, but not only when it's "Islamic fundamentalist terrorists" who use violence on civilians.

    *EDIT: what I mean is that only a) would make me say a group or a person is a "terrorist", without being too much of a pedant about the most literal use of the word.

    EDIT 2: I'm digressing, but I think what I mean is that b-e are irrelevant.

  8. Now, who really has more right to live in the Israeli area? Israel. No, i'm not brainwashed. Nope, not closed-minded. In fact, I'm very open minded on this, and my "studies" have led me to the fact that the area was given to the 13 (yes, 13) tribes of Israel by God before anyone else had officially "laid claim" to it. Israel cultivated the land, made an oasis out of a desert, and guess what? Everyone else wants in. Judging by the events of the past, and God's portioning of the land, the Palestinians own no rights to the land. I'm sorry if you don't like it, but maybe you should be a bit more open-minded to what's already been determined

    Jeru won't agree with that (the bit about it being rightfully Israeli land because God gave it to them). You can't really use religious arguments for this, because they aren't necessarily shared by everyone else.

    Some scholars argue that the Palestinians are the remains of the Jews who didn't go to exile after the Romans kicked them out (and that merged later with the Arabs), so even from your point of view, they might claim a right to the land too.

    Now, Guardian has a point, even though he should be more careful as to how he voices his opinions. Israel had no right over the land in 1947, because you can't trace those rights back to the 1st century AD, unless you're willing to do the same in every single country in the world (and then you'd give the US back to the native Indians, England to the Welsh, etc). In fact, that'd be hardly justifiable even if it could be done, because where would you draw the line? 100 AD? Why not 1500 BC? Or 6000 BC? Such an argument is rather weak.

    BUT, Israel has existed for almost 60 years. Many of its citizens were born in Israel, and they therefore have gained a right over that land.

    (Also, just because a nation has never had its own State doesn't mean you can disregard them. Even if "the Palestinians", as a national entity, is a relatively new concept, that doesn't change the fact that it exists today. And there are lots of so-called nations - which shouldn't be considered 'nations' any less than others that do have a State - that don't have a State: such as the Kurds, the Basques, the Bretons, the Flemmish, etc.)

  9. Back on topic now: Why wouldn't you include Fëanor and Finwë? And Olwë and the Vanyar king (forgot his name, silly me). I think all the heroes should be included in the editor, like also Eöl and Finarfin

    All heroes, that's a lot :drunk:

    I'm not speaking as a team member now because, as far as I know, this hasn't been discussed, but I'm guessing we'll have some sort of hero 'model units' to be used for "lesser" characters, much like AOK didn't have a single set of graphics and animations for every single hero.

  10. Glaurung, no doubt. He has that perverse intelligence going.

    Don't know why you included the batwoman

    Does it explicitly say anywhere that Thuringwethil was a female?

    And what exactly did Sauron do in the third age?

    At least in the Second Age he commanded his armies in the war of Eriador, and hardly managed to escape the Númenóreans. Then he fought personally against Gil-galad and Elendil, two of the greatest warriors of the time.

    Morgoth only went out once, was wounded several times by Ñgolofinwë, and decided it was enough for him.

  11. Quenya grammar is better known (although much of Sindarin grammar has been reconstructed, partially by analysing the Quenya grammar), but Sindarin vocabulary is a lot larger.

    I don't have my notes here (nor the pretty handy book La Lengua de los Elfos, "The Language of the Elves", a Quenya grammar and lexicon published in Spain by some dude), but if I recall correctly the instrumental case refers to the use of the object; thus, calanen "with light".

    Oh, actually, I don't have my notes but I have the almighty Ardalambion!

    The instrumental case has the ending -nen and marks the instrument with which something is done, or simply the reason why something happens. Examples from Namárië are laurië lantar lassi súrinen, "like gold fall [the] leaves in [or by] the wind", i eleni [tintilar] airetári-lírinen, "the stars tremble in her song, holy and queenly", literally *"the stars tremble by holyqueen-song". An example of a more typical "instrumental" instrumental is provided by the sentence i carir quettar ómainen, "those who form words with voices" (WJ:391), ómainen being the plural instrumental of óma "voice".

    So it's roughly equivalent to the English expressions "by _______", "because of _____"

  12. Mythos_Ruler, I don't think you'll find many educated Europeans who will say the US foreign policy is solely based on oil. I personally think that the importance of the weapons industry is bigger. And of course, there's prestige too.

  13. This is fairly stupid. When the LOTR fad provoked by the movies fades out, no one will want to study it anymore (except the same people who studied Elvish languages before the movies, or regardless of the movies).

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